Question 1

Question 1: SEM 3 CH2

A LAN switch allows many users to communicate in parallel through which of the following?

A. Routing tables

B. Multipoint protocols

C. Collision domains

D. Virtual circuits

Question 2:

Which of the following is the default order of Spanning Tree Protocol states?

1. Learning

2. Disabled

3. Blocking

4. Listening

5. Forwarding

A. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

B. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

D. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2

Question 3:

What describes the time necessary to move a packet from the data link layer to the physical layer?

A. Packet delay

B. Transmission time

C. Convergence

D. Queuing

Question 4:

What will be generated when the first Ethernet station detects a collision?

A. NACK

B. CRC misalignment message

C. Reset broadcast

D. Jam signal

Question 5:

What is used to alleviate congestion?

A. Install more hubs

B. Use an extended star

C. Use a bus topology

D. Increase the bandwidth

Question 6:

Switches that receive the entire frame before sending it, use what type of frame forwarding?

A. Cut-through

B. Receive and send

C. Copy and send

D. Store-and-forward

Question 7:

Which switch type provides connections between ports of like bandwidth?

A. Asymmetric

B. Port-centric

C. Programmable

D. Symmetric

Question 8:

What protocol is used to allow redundant paths in a switched/bridged network?

A. RIP

B. Spanning Tree

C. IGRP

D. ISL

Question 9:

Which of the following is created by segmenting a LAN with a Layer 2 Switch?

A. More collision domains

B. Less collision domains

C. More broadcast domains

D. Less broadcast domains

Question 10:

Full duplex requires how many pairs of wires?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Question 11:

Which of the following improves the performance of a shared media LAN?

A. Segmenting the network

B. Moving the workstations closer together

C. Installing a more powerful server

D. Installing more servers and printers

Question 12:

What type of switching method is used when a switch only reads the destination address before forwarding the frame?

A. Cut-through

B. Read and send

C. Copy and send

D. Store-and-forward

Question 13: CH2

Which OSI layer does a router use to make its forwarding decisions?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Question 14:

Which area of memory does the switch use to store destination and transmission data?

A. Storage partition

B. Delay queue

C. Memory buffer

D. Memory queue

Question 15:

Bridges learn about a network by building a table based on which of the following?

A. MAC addresses

B. IP addresses

C. ARP requests

D. RIP requests

Question 16:

How do VLANs group network devices?

A. Physically

B. Logically

C. Geographically

D. Topographically

Question 17:

Which of the following does a switch use to make forwarding decisions?

A. Network layer information

B. Transport layer information

C. A MAC address

D. An IP address

Question 18:

What is read by a switch to begin the forwarding process and reduce latency?

A. Frame trailer

B. Destination MAC address

C. Source MAC address

D. Checksum

Question 19:

The implementation of switching technology helps to decrease congestion by reducing traffic and increasing which of the following?

A. Attenuation

B. Available bandwidth

C. Routing protocols

D. Propagation

Question 20:

What occurs each time a switch stores an address?

A. Checks the subnet mask

B. Time stamps it

C. Places it in the routing table

D. Clears the routing table

Question 21:

Switches on a LAN allow the network administrator to do which of the following?

A. Maintain a shared network segment

B. Decrease the number of collision domains

C. Prevent microsegmentation

D. Increase the number of collision domains

Question 22:

What percentage of bandwidth is available in each direction when using full-duplex?

A. 50%

B. 75%

C. 100%

D. 125%

Question 23:

Which Layer 1 device is used to extend the coverage area of a LAN segment?

A. Router

B. Switch

C. Repeater

D. Gateway

Question 24:

Which represents the time it takes a frame to travel from its source station to its final destination on the network?

A. Hop count

B. Bits per second

C. Latency

D. Tick time

Question 1: SEM 3 CH3

Users may be reassigned to different VLANs using which of the following?

A. Hubs

B. Software

C. Routers

D. Bridges

Question 2:

VLANs, along with routers, establish which of the following?

A. WANs

B. LANs

C. Broadcast domains

D. Collision domains

Question 3:

What is a VLAN used to create?

A. Autonomous systems

B. Broadcast domains

C. Network Sectors

D. Virtual sections

Question 4:

Frame tagging places a unique identifier in the header of each frame as it is forwarded across the network __________.

A. microsegment

B. LAN

C. backbone

D. WAN

Question 5:

What would be the preferred type of link of a VLAN backbone?

A. slow serial

B. low capacity

C. 56 Kbps

D. High bandwidth

Question 6:

The smaller the VLAN, the smaller the number of users that are affected by which of the following?

A. Packet filtering

B. Switch latency

C. Framing

D. Broadcasts

Question 7:

According to the IEEE, what is the acceptable way to implement VLANs?

A. Grouping

B. Filtering

C. Source bridging

D. Frame tagging

Question 8:

What technique does 802.1q use to implement VLANs?

A. Grouping

B. Filtering

C. Source bridging

D. Frame tagging

Question 9:

Which device is used to reduce or eliminate broadcast related problems?

A. Bridges

B. Routers

C. Passive hubs

D. Active hubs

Question 10:

What is an effective preventative measure used with segmentation to prevent broadcast related problems?

A. Firewalls

B. LANs

C. WANs

D. Bridges

Question 11:

Which of the following VLAN types require changes by the network administrator but are easy to configure, and straightforward to monitor?

A. Dynamic

B. Static

C. Cut-through

D. Store-and-forward

Question 12:

Which technique examines particular information about each frame?

A. Latency

B. Frame resolving

C. Frame filtering

D. Store and forward

Question 13:

Which of the following do VLANs use to make filtering and forwarding decisions?

A. Packets

B. Frames

C. Presentation header

D. Network design

Question 14: CH3

What term describes all nodes on the same VLAN ID that are attached to the same switched port?

A. Dynamic

B. Static

C. Port-centric

D. Static-centric

Question 15:

The individual ports of a non-intelligent hub can be assigned to how many VLAN(s)?

A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. None

Question 16:

When logically segmenting your network with VLANs, what type of device do you need to ensure proper communication between the VLANs that are created?

A. Switch

B. Bridge

C. Hub

D. Router

Question 17:

What is a benefit of using VLANs?

A. Extended collision domains

B. Increased administration

C. Multiple cable runs

D. Tighter network security

Question 18:

What is the term used when ports on a switch are administratively assigned to a VLAN?

A. Dynamic

B. Static

C. Default

D. Polled

Question 19:

Dynamic VLANs can be based on which of the following?

A. MAC addresses

B. Protocol type

C. Logical addressing

D. All of the above

Question 20:

How can access be controlled on a secured VLAN?

A. Station address

B. Protocol types

C. Application types

D. All of the above

Question 21:

A VLAN makes up a switched network that is logically segmented by all of the following EXCEPT :

A. Collison domains

B. Functions

C. Applications

D. Project teams

Question 22:

A VLAN is based on which type of grouping?

A. Logical

B. Physical

C. Star

D. Ethernet

Question 23:

Frame tagging functions at what OSI layer?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

Question 24:

What is the term used when switch ports are automatically assigned to a VLAN?

A. Dynamic

B. Static

C. Port-centric

D. Default

Question 1: SEM3 CH4

Which of the following devices establishes a bandwidth domain also known as the collision domain?

A. Repeater

B. Switch

C. Active hub

D. Passive hub

Question 2:

Which of the following results in network microsegmentation?

A. Using only hubs for connectivity

B. Removing bridges from the network

C. Using switches for connectivity

D. Adding more computers on a single segment

Question 3:

When creating multiple wiring closets in a totally switched environment, what else is always created?

A. Multiple catchment areas

B. Multiple broadcast domains

C. Multiple MDFs

D. Multiple LANs

Question 4:

Where should workgroup servers be placed?

A. MDF

B. POP

C. VCC

D. IDF

Question 5:

What is the ability to expand the network without having to perform any major changes to the overall design?

A. Functionality

B. Manageability

C. Operability

D. Scalability

Question 6:

What is used to create multiple physical networks in a structured Layer 1 wiring scheme?

A. Patching the horizontal and vertical cabling into an appropiate layer 2 switch

B. Using a router

C. Connecting the MDF to the IDF

D. Patching fiber optic cable to coaxial cable

Question 7:

Which of the following results from the use of bridges and switches for segmentation?

A. Multiple broadcast domains

B. A single collision domain

C. A larger overall network

D. Multiple collision domains

Question 8:

What type of network segmentation do routers allow?

A. Logical and Incremental

B. Logical and Physical

C. Virtual and Physical

D. Virtual and Logical

Question 9:

What can routers provide when used between VLANs?

A. Communication

B. No services

C. Larger collision domains

D. Additional availability of MAC addresses

Question 10:

Which of the following is NOT a step in gathering and analyzing requirements for a LAN?

A. Develop LAN topology

B. Track information flow

C. List applications in use

D. Address performance issues

Question 11:

What do VLANs provide?

A. Physical networks

B. Larger broadcast domains

C. Decreased security

D. Broadcast containment

Question 12:

Which of the following is NOT a factor when configuring an intranet?

A. Type of data to be accessed

B. Server privileges

C. Providing public access

D. Outfitting desktops with faster connectivity

Question 13:

Which device is one of the most common Layer 2 devices?

A. LAN switch

B. Active hub

C. Passive hub

D. Router

Question 14: CH4

Which of the following devices is associated with one broadcast domain per port?

A. Switch

B. Active hub

C. Router

D. Bridge

Question 15:

What is the effect of a switch on bandwidth?

A. Dedicates bandwidth

B. Shares bandwidth

C. Decreases bandwidth

D. Eliminates bandwidth

Question 16:

Internetwork design seeks to provide the greatest availability for the least _________.

A. design time

B. cost

C. network downtime

D. installation time

Question 17:

In a star topology network, what is at the center point of the star?

A. IDF

B. Router

C. HCC

D. MDF

Question 18:

Which of the following is allowed by asymmetric switching?

A. Shared switching on a segment

B. Connections of unlike bandwidth

C. Dedicated uplink connectivity

D. Like bandwidth connections

Question 19:

What is the maximum recommended distance of a standard patch cord connecting the horizontal cross connect with switch ports?

A. 3 m

B. 6 m

C. 9 m

D. 10 m

Question 20:

The star/extended star topology uses what type of standard?

A. Token ring

B. Ethernet 802.3

C. Ethernet 802.5

D. ARCNET

Question 21:

What is the current standard for the bandwidth connecting MDF to IDF in Mbps?

A. 1

B. 10

C. 100

D. 150

Question 22:

Which of the following is NOT true about logical and physical network maps?

A. Give a snapshot of the network

B. Help troubleshoot

C. Show which routing protocol is used

D. Show subnet mask and router name

Question 23:

In a pure LAN switch environment, what is the size of the collision domain?

A. All hosts

B. Four hosts

C. Two hosts

D. The number of hosts in the broadcast domain

Question 24:

What is the most important Layer 1 issue to consider when designing a network?

A. VLAN layout

B. Physical cable plan

C. Router layout

D. Switch segmentation

Question 25:

What is the first step in LAN design?

A. Establish the design goals

B. Estimate the design cost

C. Determine the network users

D. Determine the physical size

Question 1: SEM 3 CH5

What passes periodic copies of routing tables from router to router?

A. Link state

B. Distance vector

C. Store-and-forward

D. Cut-through

Question 2:

Entries made by an administrator to manipulate a routing table are referred to as which of the following?

A. Static routes

B. Dynamic routes

C. ARP tables

D. Routing tables

Question 3:

Which of the options below gives two basic steps required when configuring a routing protocol?

1. Configure the interface

2. Enable the routing protocol

3. Disable routing updates

4. Add the network numbers

A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3

C. 2, 4

D. 3, 4

Question 4:

Routers under a common administration are said to belong to what?

A. A WAN

B. A LAN

C. An AS

D. An SNMP

Question 5:

What causes routing loops?

A. Path determination is optimized

B. Hop count is set below 50

C. Convergence is present

D. Routing tables have not converged

Question 6:

What is the maximum hop count associated with IGRP?

A. 15

B. 50

C. 100

D. 255

Question 7:

At what time interval does IGRP send routing updates?

A. 120 seconds

B. 30 seconds

C. 60 seconds

D. 90 seconds

Question 8:

Which of the following is a Cisco proprietary protocol?

A. IGRP

B. RIP

C. OSPF

D. ISIS

Question 9:

Distance-vector routing begins by identifying which directly connected entity?

A. Routers

B. Ports

C. Switches

D. Networks

Question 10:

Which of the following occurs when a router tries to send information about a route back in the same direction it was received.

A. Split horizon

B. Poison reverse update

C. Holddown

D. Routing loop

Question 11:

What allows a router to accept a packet on one interface and forward it to another interface?

A. Broadcast forwarding

B. Switching function

C. Filter and control function

D. Path determination

Question 12:

Which of the following are primary goals of routing protocols?

1. Point-to-multipoint routing

2. Rapid convergence

3. Efficiency

4. Flexibility

5. Microsegmentation

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 4, 5

D. 1, 3, 5

Question 13: CH5

Select the correct IOS command for configuring IGRP as the routing protocol.

A. Router#router igrp 100

B. Router(config-router)>router igrp 100

C. Router(config)#router igrp 100

D. Router(config-if)#set router igrp 100

Question 14:

Which OSI layer is responsible for finding the best path through the internetwork?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Question 15:

What is a router's main responsibility when routing packets?

A. Traffic control

B. Collision avoidance

C. Enforcing security

D. Path determination

Question 16:

For dynamic routing to work properly what must routers send to other routers?

A. ARP requests

B. RARP packets

C. Static routes

D. Timely updates

Question 17:

Which routing protocols would most likely be found running on a multiprotocol router?

A. IPX/SPX and RIP

B. RIP and TCP/IP

C. AppleTalk and IGRP

D. RIP and IGRP

Question 18:

Which of the following refers to the number of routers a packet must pass through?

A. Bandwidth

B. Hop count

C. Tick count

D. Delay

Question 19:

What do routers use to communicate with other routers?

A. Broadcast forwarding

B. IP Tunneling

C. Routing protocols

D. Routed protocols

Question 20:

Which of the following is another term for shortest path first routing algorithm?

A. Source bridging

B. Store-and-forward

C. Distance-vector

D. Link state

Question 21:

What do routers use to make forwarding decisions?

A. Routing tables

B. VLANs

C. WAN connectivity

D. Proximity

Question 22:

What type of information is automatically adjusted as topology changes occur?

A. Static routes

B. Dynamic routes

C. ARP tables

D. RARP tables

Question 23:

Which routing protocol is used to communicate between autonomous systems?

A. RIP

B. Ethernet

C. Token Ring

D. Exterior routing protocols

Question 24:

What does dynamic routing rely on?

A. Maintenance of an ARP table

B. Accurate entry of static routes

C. Accurate routing tables

D. Collision forwarding

Question 25:

What two parts can most protocol addressing schemes be broken down into?

A. TCP and IP

B. IPX and SPX

C. Network and broadcast

D. Network and host

Question 1: SEM3 CH6

Which type of access list uses the number range 100-199?

A. IPX standard

B. AppleTalk

C. IP standard

D. IP extended

Question 2:

Which of the following must be configured on a router in order to deny packets based on specific tests?

A. Access lists

B. RIP

C. IGRP

D. Source routing

Question 3:

A wildcard mask bit of "1" means that the corresponding bit must be ___________.

A. checked

B. ignored

C. deleted

D. passed

Question 4:

Which Cisco IOS command allows you to view the placement of an access list?

A. show access list

B. show access-group

C. show ip interface

D. show interface

Question 5:

Along with the packet type, Cisco IOS access lists also check what?

A. Physical layer headers

B. Upper layer headers

C. Lower layer headers

D. Data link headers

Question 6:

Which type of access list would permit or deny part of a protocol suite?

A. Standard

B. General

C. Specific

D. Extended

Question 7:

Where should standard access lists be set?

A. Close to the source

B. Close to the destination

C. On any router in the network

D. Midway between source and destination

Question 8:

Which order are the statements in an access list processed to determine whether packets should be processed or discarded?

A. From bottom of the list up

B. In random order

C. By prioritizing the incoming packets

D. In sequential order

Question 9:

When checking a specific address in an access list, you can abbreviate the address and mask 0.0.0.0 by entering the word ________.

A. permit

B. deny

C. any

D. host

Question 10:

Which wildcard mask would match the host range for the subnet 192.16.5.32 /27?

A. 0.0.0.32

B. 0.0.0.63

C. 0.0.63.255

D. 0.0.0.31

Question 11:

In an access list, what word can replace 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255?

A. Permit

B. Accept

C. Any

D. All

Question 12:

What type of access list would you use to permit or deny specific protocols within the IP suite?

A. Extended

B. Protocol suite

C. Specific

D. Standard

Question 13:

What would the wildcard mask be to deny traffic only on network 195.67.52.0?

A. 0.0.255.255

B. 255.255.255.0

C. 0.0.0.255

D. 255.255.0.0

Question 14: CH6

What happens to a packet that does not match any of the tests in an access list?

A. It is discarded.

B. It is sent to the recipient.

C. It is stored until the access list is updated.

D. It is returned to the sender.

Question 15:

Which ACL would permit everyone to telnet to router 192.168.5.2?

A. router-a(config)#access-list 102 permit ip any host 192.168.5.2 eq 23

B. router-a#access-list 102 permit ip any host 192.168.5.2 eq 23

C. router-a(config)#access-list 102 permit tcp any host 192.168.5.2 eq 23

D. router-a#access-list 102 permit tcp any host 192.168.5.2 eq 23

Question 16:

When using a standard access list, which of the following criteria can routers use for filtering packets?

A. MAC address

B. Port numbers

C. Specific protocols

D. Source address

Question 17:

What is a possible use of ACLs?

A. Increased network traffic

B. Decreased security

C. Packet filtering

D. Decreased latency

Question 18:

Access lists can be applied to traffic flowing in which direction?

A. Inbound only

B. Both inbound and outbound

C. Outbound only

D. Serial only

Question 19:

IP access lists use which of the following to determine which address bits are examined?

A. Subnet masks

B. Network masks

C. Host IDs

D. Wildcard bits

Question 20:

What does the following access list do?

access-list 1 deny host 172.16.4.13

access-list 1 permit 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

int e0

ip access-group 1

A. Blocks packets originating from 172.16.4.13 from going out port E0, but permits all other traffic

B. Blocks packets originating from anywhere except 172.16.4.13 from going out port E0

C. Permits traffic originating from anywhere except 172.16.4.13 to send FTP packets into port E0

D. This is an invalid access list

Question 21:

Which extended ACL parameter allows you to set the acknowledgement bit?

A. eq

B. ack

C. established

D. bit set

Question 22:

What is the final step in implementing an access list?

A. Apply the access list to one or more interfaces.

B. Set the parameters for the access list tests.

C. Determine the state of the access list.

D. None of the above

Question 23:

Which command is used to keep track of how many packets were permitted or denied based on an access-list?

A. eq

B. establish

C. ack

D. log

Question 24:

Which port number is used for DNS?

A. 21

B. 33

C. 52

D. 53

Question 1: SEM3 CH7

Which frame types are compatible with the Cisco IOS name Novell-ether?

A. Ethernet_II

B. Ethernet_802.2

C. Ethernet_SNAP

D. Ethernet_802.3

Question 2:

Which metrics does Novell RIP use?

A. Bandwidth and delay

B. Ticks and hop count

C. Distance and cost

D. Size and throughput

Question 3:

Where does the response to a GNS request come from if there is both a Cisco router and a NetWare server on the same LAN?

A. Router

B. Local NetWare server

C. Local SAP server

D. Switch

Question 4:

When using multiple encapsulations on an interface, what must be assigned?

A. Multiple protocols

B. Multiple network numbers

C. Multiple subnet masks

D. Multiple SAP types

Question 5:

What is the default WAN tick metric for IPX networks?

A. Five

B. Six

C. Seven

D. Eight

Question 6:

What is not a valid Cisco IPX Ethernet encapsulation type?

A. ARPA

B. Novell-ether

C. SNAP

D. 802.3

Question 7:

What do NetWare clients use to find NetWare servers?

A. GNS packets

B. SAP packets

C. RIP packets

D. SPX packets

Question 8:

Where are SAP tables stored?

A. On workstations and servers

B. On routers and servers

C. On routers and workstations

D. On routers only

Question 9:

What is correct regarding the node number using Novell's IPX addressing scheme?

A. 80 bits long

B. Written in decimal

C. Same as the MAC address

D. Number assigned by an administrator

Question 10:

Why would you use the command IPX maximum-paths?

A. To define the maximum hops

B. To specify the number of routes available

C. To provide load sharing

D. To increase the tick count

Question 11:

Which IPX routing command is used to show the number and type of packets received and transmitted by the router?

A. show ipx servers

B. show ipx route

C. show ipx traffic

D. show ipx interface

Question 12:

Which of the following is NOT a part of the Novell IPX Protocol Suite?

A. Service Advertising Protocol (SAP)

B. Network Core Protocol (NCP)

C. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

D. Sequence Packet Exchange (SPX)

Question 13:

Which command is used to display IPX routing tables?

A. show ipx servers

B. show ipx route

C. show ipx traffic

D. show ipx interface

Question 14:

Which configuration command is used to set the number of routes used for load sharing?

A. ipx routing

B. ipx networks

C. ipx maximum-paths

D. router rip

Question 15: SEM3 CH7

When configuring interfaces for IPX, what must be assigned to each interface?

A. IP address

B. Host address

C. Network number

D. Subnet mask

Question 16:

What type of protocol is IPX?

A. Connection-oriented

B. Connectionless

C. Nonroutable

D. Connection like

Question 17:

Which of the following commands enables IPX routing?

A. ipx maximum-paths

B. ipx routing

C. ipx network

D. router novell-rip

Question 18:

Which of the following occurs when a router running Novell RIP has two equal paths to a network?

A. Selects the route with the lowest hop count.

B. Discards the packet.

C. Forwards the packet out the default route.

D. Implements load sharing.

Question 19:

What is the default type of routing protocol used by Novell NetWare?

A. Link-state

B. Distance vector

C. Hybrid

D. OSPF

Question 20:

How do you obtain an IPX network address?

A. Apply to InterNIC

B. Use DHCP

C. Add the address with the subnet mask

D. Obtain it from the network administrator

Question 21:

What do routers do with SAP packets?

A. Build a SAP table

B. Discard the SAP packets

C. Forward the SAP packets

D. Send them to a SAP server

Question 22:

Which Cisco IOS command is used to check IPX SAP updates?

A. show sap routing updates

B. show sap routing activity

C. debug ipx sap activity

D. debug sap routing activity

Question 23:

Select the command that you would use to check IPX routing updates.

A. show ipx routing updates

B. show ipx routing activity

C. debug ipx routing activity

D. debug ipx rip

Question 24:

What is the encapsulation type on a router for a Novell network running version 3.12?

A. Novell-ether

B. ARPA

C. SNAP

D. SAP

Question 25:

What does IPX use in the host portion of an address to eliminate the use of ARP requests?

A. SAP

B. SPX

C. MAC

D. RARPs

Question 1: SEM3 CH8

Which of the following is included in MDF and IDF documentation?

A. POP specifications

B. Rack mount locations

C. Name of administrator

D. Server cost

Question 2:

Risks associated with working on the inside of a computer can be reduced by doing which of the following?

A. Using a grounding strap

B. Standing on synthetic carpet

C. Turning the power on

D. Wearing leather shoes

Question 3:

Which of the following reports would be used to determine what programs are installed on a particular computer?

A. Software

B. Server

C. Network

D. Workstation

Question 4:

What is your first step in the troubleshooting process?

A. Analyze data

B. Undo previous network changes

C. Gather data

D. Ignore the call

Question 5:

What controls the resources and management of a client-server network?

A. Server

B. Network operating system (NOS)

C. Host

D. Client

Question 6:

Which of the following is a program that usually has a negative effect on executable programs?

A. Trojan Horse

B. Virus

C. Worm

D. Infection

Question 7:

What is the least implemented component of network administration?

A. Security

B. Performance

C. Documentation

D. Baselining

Question 8:

Network troubleshooting is defined as what type of process?

A. An applied science

B. A systematic process

C. A skill

D. An applied theory

Question 9:

Which type of backup stores all files that have been created and modified since the last full backup?

A. Incremental

B. Hierarchical

C. Copy

D. Daily

Question 10:

What is the reason magnetic tape is used to backup data?

A. Speed

B. Easily locate data

C. Cost

D. Tape never needs replacing

Question 11:

Which command will test the loopback function on the NIC?

A. Ping 127.0.0.1

B. Telnet 127.0.0.1

C. Ping 127.0.0.0

D. Telnet 127.0.0.0

Question 12:

Which of the following is the most critical component of good network administration?

A. Security

B. Performance

C. Documentation

D. Backbone

Question 13:

Which device controls voltage spikes and HF noise?

A. Surge Suppressor

B. Isolating transformer

C. Regulator

D. Wall outlet

Question 14: SEM3 CH8

Which of the following is NOT associated with a peer-to-peer network?

A. Easily shared resources

B. No additional software is required

C. Requires a dedicated server

D. Less expensive to create

Question 15:

Which of the following would NOT be found on security documentation?

A. User rights

B. Firewall support

C. Software listings

D. Physical access to the network

Question 16:

Which of the following refers to documentation that outlines what is and what is not permissible on the network?

A. User policies

B. Internet guidelines

C. Group restrictions

D. Workstation permissions

Question 17:

What is a solution to the problem of EMI/RFI effecting performance on your network?

A. Running cable along power lines

B. Using STP cable

C. Using fluorescent lighting

D. Use generators to power switches in MDF

Question 18:

A peer-to-peer network is also known as what type of network?

A. Client-server

B. Thin client

C. Workgroup

D. Home office

Question 19:

Which of the following redundancy techniques uses disk striping with parity and requires a minimum of three disks?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 4

D. RAID 5

Question 20:

Which of the following is NOT used as a baseline measure?

A. Bandwidth utilization

B. Collision count

C. Broadcast traffic

D. Configuration errors

Question 21:

Which of the following is used to keep a list of equipment repairs?

A. Security record

B. Software record

C. Maintenance record

D. Policy record

Question 22:

What is the recommended maximum number of users in a peer-to-peer network?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Question 23:

Which of the following is a program that spreads across computers and usually reproduces copies of itself in a computer's memory?

A. CRC error

B. SAP updates

C. Worm

D. BDU's

Question 24:

What criteria should be used to select network passwords?

A. Specific family names

B. Birth dates

C. Mother's maiden name

D. Network policy

Question 25:

Which network operating system supports multi-user, multitasking, primarily uses NFS security, and is kernel based?

A. Netware 4.11

B. Unix

C. Windows NT 4.0

D. Netware 5.0